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Model Entrance Examination 1999
Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Examination 1999
Page 2
**Go to Page 1 **Go to Page 3 **Answers
101. The characteristic ROUNDNESS
the shoulder is due to:
a. Acromion process of the scapula b. Coracoid process of scapula
c. Both d. Neither
102. During the process of normal
respiration:
a. 90 joints move b. Intercostal muscles do not act c. Diaphragm relaxes during expiration
d. Expiration produced solely by internal intercostals.
103. Characteristic features of
large intestine:
a. Taenia coli b. Appendices epiplociae c. Large lumen
d. All of the above
104. The spinal cord extends from
foramen magnum to the lower border of the vertebra
a. Tenth thoracic b. Eleventh thoracic c. First lumbar d. Third lumbar
105. Paralysis of tongue muscles
of one side and lower limb muscles of opposite side may be caused as a result of damage to
one of the following arteries:
a. Anterior spinal b. Posterior spinal c. Anterior inferior cerebellar
d. Posterior inferior cerebellar
106. Injury to ulnar nerve above
elbow can produce:
a. Ape hand b. Claw hand c. Dupuytren's contracture d. Volkmann's contracture
107. The general sensory supply to
the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is by:
a. Lingual nerve b. Hypoglossal nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Chorda tympani nerve
108. The interior of the ureter is
lined by:
a. Ciliated columnar epithelium b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Transitional epithelium
d. Cuboidal epithelium
109. Which sinus is closely
related to Tentorium cerebelli:
a. Straight sinus b. Transverse sinus c. Inferior petrosal sinus
d. Occipital sinus
110. The root value of pudendal
nerve is:
a. S1S2S3 b. S2S3S4 c.L5S1 d. S3S4S5
111. The inguinal triangle has its
boundary:
a. Pectineal line b. Inferior epigastric artery c. Conjoint tendon
d. Linea senilunaris
112. Triceps is supplied by:
a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Axillary nerve
d. Musulo-cutaneous nerve
113. Which is not a part of basal
ganglia:
a. Amygdaloid body b. Lentiform nucleus c. Caudate nucleus
d. Dentate nucleus
114. The glands having both an
endocrine and exocrine function include:
a. Pancreas b. Testis c. Both d. None
115. Nerve supply of stapedius
muscle:
a. Glassopharyngeal b. Facial c. Vagus d. Accessory
116. Coronary blood flow is
usually predominantly controlled by
a. Autoregulation b. Hormone c. Parasympathetic impulses
d. Sympathetic impulses
117. Basic reflex of posture is
the
a. Flexor reflex b. Crossed extensor reflex c. Golgi tendon reflex
d. Positive supporting reaction
118. Cardiac index is related to:
a. Cardiac output and body weight b. Cardiac output and surface area c. Cardiac output and
work of the heart d. Stroke volume and pulse rate
119. Glucocorticoids when in
excess, decrease the number of:
a. Circulatory neutrophils b. Circulatory eosinophils c. Circulatory platelets d.
Circulatory red blood cells
120. Circulating blood normally
contains free:
a. Thrombin b. Fibrin c. Prothrombin d. None of the above
121. Active reabsorption of
glucose appears to occur in the:
a. Proximal tubule b. Loope of Henle c. Distal tubule d. All of the above
122. Hypertension may be produced
by:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Normal kidneys c. Sodium depletion
d. Ventricular fibrillation
123. In Addison's disease there is
rise in:
a. Blood glucose b. Blood pressure c. Serum potassium
d. Serum sodium
124. The most reliable sign of
hypoxia is:
a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Increased pulse rate
d. Deep respiration
125. Decreased water absorption in
the proximal tubules occurs in:
a. Water diuresis b. Osmotic diuresis c. Diabetes insipidus
d. None of the above
126. Carbonmonoxide is carried in
the blood:
a. In combination with haemoglobin b. In physical solution in plasma c. In combination
with plasma proteins d. All are true
127. Thyrone hormones tend to
increase:
a. Peripheral resistance b. Intestinal movements c. Drowsiness
d. The duration of tendon reflexes
128. Cerebrospinal fluid
a. is actively secreted by choroidal plexus b. it is a major source of brain nutrition c.
Has the phase arterial blood d. Virtually glucose free
129. With increasing age, increase
of all tends to occur in the following except:
a. Systolic blood pressure b. Pulse pressure c. Vital capacity
d. Residual volume
130. Arterial pressure can be
lowered by stimulation of the:
a. Vasomotor centre b. Motor cortex c. Anterior hypothalamus
d. Posterior hypothalamus
131. One of the following is not
an aromatic aminoacid
a.Threonine b. Phenylalanine c. Tyrosine d. Tryptophan
132. Which of the following is a
metabolic precursor of uric acid:
a. Lysine b. Hippuric acid c. Tryptophane d.Cystine
133. Insulin resistance is
encountered in:
a. Addison's disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypopituitarism
d. Acromegaly
134. Lactate dehydrogenase levels
are increased in blood in
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Myocardial infarction c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Acute pancreatitis
135. High blood cholesterol and
diminished serum proteins are encountered in:
a. Atherosclerosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Obstructive jaundice
d. Nephrotic syndrome
136. In sickle cell anemia, the
haemoglobin has faulty
a. Iron component b. Porphyrin component c. Beta chain globin
d. Alpha chain of globin
137. Convulsive episodes occur
when there is a severe deficiency of:
a. Folic acid b. Pyridoxine c. Thiamine d. Riboflavine
138. PBI is a combination of
protein and:
a. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine b. Thyroxine only c. Tri iodothyronine only
d. Iodine
139. 'Prothrombin time' of plasma
is prolonged by administration of:
a. Vitamin K b. Dicoumarol c. Calcium gluconate d. Folic acid
140. Methyl malonic aciduria is
seen in a deficiency of:
a. Vitamin B6 b. Folic acid c. Thiamine d. Vitamin B12
141. Calcitonin is antagonist to;
a. Parathyroid hormone b. Serotonin c. Insulin d.Epinephrine
142. Detoxification of drugs and
metabolites is effected by hydroxylation of:
a. Cytochrome a b. Cytochrome b45 c. Cytochrome c d. Cytochrome p
143. One of the following
lipoproteins ward off atherosclerosis
a. LDL b. HDL c. VDL d. IDL
144. Reduction of
mineralocorticoids cause:
a. Excess of potassium b. Low potassium c. Excess of sodium
d. None of the above
145. Glycogen is converted into
glucose-1-phosphate by:
a. UDPG transferase b. Branching enzymes c. Phosphorylase
d. Diphosphorylase
146. Which of the following is not
usually associatedwith abd.pain in infancy
a. Volvulus b. Infantile colic c. Intussusception d.Duodenal ulcer
147. Which of the following is
most essential for a growing 4 years old child:
a. Histidine b. Isoleucine c. Leucine d. Lysine 148. Kwashiorker is characterised by all
except:
a. Skin changes b. Growth reatrdation c. Edema d. Mental alertness
149. When should breast feeding be
started for a new born
a. 12 hours of life b. 25 hours of life c. 6 hours of life d. 2 hours of life
150. The commonest cause of convulsion in a 9 months
old child with fever is:
a. Phenylketonuria b. Febrile convulsion c. Epilepsy d. Meningitis 
151. Preventable cause of mental
retardation:
a. Mongolism(Down's syndrome) b. Microcephaly c. Neonatal tetanus
d. Hypothyroidism
152. The most common cause of
blindness in children is:
a. Tuberculous meningitis b. Small pox c. Vitamin A deficiency
d. Congenital rubella syndrome
153. Among the many congenital
laryngeal abnormalities, the most frequently seen abnormality is:
a. Laryngomalacia b. Laryngeal web c. Laryngocele d. Laryngeal cyst
154. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is
characterised by the following features except:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Draining ears c. Eczema d. Low IgG
155. Faecal examination is usually
not effective in the diagnosis of:
a. Ascariasis b. Enterobiasis c. Hookworm infestation
d. Strongyloidiosis
156. The following are the types
of pyoderma except:
a. Folliculitis b. Mollascum contagiosum c. Impetigo d. Icthyma
157. The drug of choice in
Streptococcal infection is:
a. Sulphonamide b. Penicillin c. Tetracyclin d. Chloramphenicol
158. The CSF findings in
tuberculous meningitis include all, except:
a. Elevated pressure b. Usually turbid c. Forms cobweb coagulum
d. Increased protein content
159. One of the following is not a
characteristic feature of Down's syndrome:
a. Protruding tongue b. Simian crease c. Mental retardation d. Prominent occiput
160. All of the following are
causes of neonatal jaundice, except:
a. Syphilis b. Rh1 D incompatibility c. Biliary atresia d. Pancreatic carcinoma
161. Schizophrenia is most closely
associated with:
a. Psthesis b. Asthenic c. Athletic d. Dysplastic
162. Imipramine is mainly used as
a:
a. Antidepressant b. Tranquilizer c. Sedative d. None of the above
163. The best clues to a diagnosis
of psychoneurosis are derived from:
a. Reaction to environment b. Motor behaviour c. Verbal accounts
d. Visceral reactions
164. Acute organic psychosis may
be associated with all of the following diseases except:
a. Head injury b. Arteriosclerosis c. Meningitis d. Delirium tremens
165. Excessive talkativeness and
flight of ideas are the features of:
a. Mania b. Schizophrenia c. Hysteria d. Psychoneuroses
166. One finds the patient to be
clinging, dependent and demanding in:
a. Depressive stupor b. Paranoid depression c. Claiming types of depression d. Acute
depression
167. The 'trigger' for a sustained
metabolic process responsible for mania is:
a. L-dopa b. 5-HT c. Cyclic AMP d. 5-HIAA
168. In grief as in depression,
there are similar findings, except for:
a. Loss of self esteem b. Sense of loss c. Sadness d. Loss of interest in outside world
169. Average duration of untreated
depressive episodes is:
a. 1 month b. 9 months c. 6 months d. 3 months
170. Classical depression is
characterised by all, except:
a. Psychomotor retardation b. Loosening of associations c. Retardation of thinking
processes d. Pervading mood of melancholia
171. The prime habitat of the
staphylococcus is:
a. Throat b. Nose c. Skin d. Ear
172. A common complication of
mumps is :
a. Myocarditis b. Orchitis c. Uveitis d. Conjunctivitis.
173. A patient with small pox is
infectious until :
a. Rash appears b. When lesions are encrusted c. All crusts have fallen of
d. Fever subsides
174. The most frequent
complication of measles is :
a. Pneumonia b. Encephalitis c. Otitis media d. Bronchitis.
175. The treatment of acute
pulmonary oedema includes all of the following except :
a. Morphine IM b. Aminophyllin IV c. Phlebotomy or tourniquets on all extremities d. Salt
restriction.
176. Streptococcal meningitis is
usually a complication of :
a. S.B.E b. Otitis media c. Pharyngitis d. Chorea.
177. Acute myocardial infarction
frequently presents with all of the following except :
a. Nausea and vomiting b. Dyspnoea c. Flushed skin d. Syncope.
178. The cerebral spinal fluid
sugar in tuberculous meningitis is usually :
a. Normal b. Elevated c. Below normal d. Absent.
179. Antibiotic that can be used
safely in renal failure is :
a. Penicillin b. Nitrofurantion c. Chlortetracycline d. Kanamycin.
180. The most important
complication of mitral insufficiency includes :
a. Arrhythmia b. Embolism c. Cardiac failure d. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
181. Severe jaundice in sickle
cell disease occurs with – crisis
a. Hepatic b. Haemolytic c. Aplastic d. Vaso-occlusive.
182. Fragmentation of nucleus in
necrosed cell is known as :
a. Karyorrhexis b. Karyolysis c. Pylorosis d. Caseation.
183. Tachycardia is not a features
of :
a. Digitalis poisoning b. Obstructive jaundice c. Pulmonary tuberculosis d.
Thyrotoxicosis.
184. The most frequent site of
tuberculosis in the G.U. tract is :
a. Ovary b. Fallopain tubes c. Cervix d. Body of uterus.
185. Which of the following is
most essential for a growing 4 years old child :
a. Histidine b. Isoleucine c. Leucine d. Lysine.
186. The most frequent
complications of meningococcal meningitis :
a. Arthritis b. Panopthamitis c. Pericarditis d. Endocarditis.
187. Amphoric breathing is heard
in :
a. Small cavities b. Closed pneumothorax c. Pericardial effusion d. Pneumothorax.
188. Tension pneumothorax occurs
in :
a. Open pneumothorax b. Closed pneumothorax c. Valvular pneumothorax d. Oesophageal
rupture
189. Osler's nodes are pathognomic
of :
a. Rheumatic fever b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d.
Osteoarthritis.
190. Pulsus alternans is felt in :
a. Myxoedema b. Pericardial effusion c. Mitral stenosis d. Left ventricular failure.
191. Insulin should not be given
in:
a. Juvenile diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes mellitus with infection
c. Sulfonyl urea failures d. Renal glyclosuria
192. Hyperkalaemia is
characterised by:
a. narrow QRS complex b. prominent P waves c. short PR interval
d. tall T waves
193. Kayser-Fleischer ring in
corneal margin is seen in:
a. Syndenham's chorea b. Huntington's chorea c. Senile persons
d. Hepato-lenticular degeneration
194. In Tabes dorsalis the tendon
reflexes are:
a. normal b. lost c. brisk d. exaggerated
195. Erythema Nodosum occurs in:
a. Bronchiectasis b. Sulpha reactions c. Psoriasis d. Fallot's tetralogy
196. Dissociated anesthesia occurs
in:
a. Friedrich's ataxia b. Subacute combined degeneration c. Motor neurone disease d.
Intramedullary tumour
197. Most sensitive part of cornea
a. Central 5mm b. Peripheral 5mm c. Upper temporal quadrant
d.Upper nasal quadrant
198. Respiratory quotient of lens:
a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 d.1 199. 1st order neurons of retina:
a. Rodes & cones b. Biplor cells c. Ganglion cells d. Nerve fibre layer
200. Pressure of retinal arteries
in the disc assessed using:
a. Schiotz tonometer b. Applanation tonometer c. Ophthalmodynamometer d. Gonioscopy
**Answers
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