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Model Entrance Examination 1999
Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Exam 1999 :
Page 3
**Go to Page 1 **Go to Page 2 **Answers
201. Buphthalmos is associated
with cong.malformation:
a. Goldenhar's syndrome b. Sturge-weber syndrome c. Apert's syndrome d. Crouzon's syndrome
202. Candle-wax spots in retina
seen in:
a. TB b. Sarcoidosis c. Toxoplasmosis d.Mediated nerve fibres
203. Ulcus serpens, a type of
hypopyon ulcer is characteristic of infection with:
a. Staphylococcus b. Gonococcus c. Pneumococcus e. Pseudomonas
204. Corneal odema, occurs due to
damage of:
a. Epithelium b. Bowman's membrane c. Substantia propria d. Endothelium
205. Deficiency amblyopia due to
deficiency of Vitamin:
a. A b. B1 c. B6 d. C
206. Hypoplasia of optic nerve and
cerebral malformations like hypopituitarism and agenesis of Corpus callosum are
teratogenic effects produced by:
a. Thalidomide b. Phenytoin c. Corticosteroids d. Penicillin
207. Miners nystagmus is:
a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Rotatory d. Pendular
208. The hand injuries which is
the most important thing to be done:
a. Fixing the bone b. Skin closure c. Repair of nerves d. Repair of tendens
209. Amount of water produced
inside by body by oxidation:
a. 300ml b. 400ml c. 500ml d. 600ml
210. Acquired syphillis is rarely
communicable:
a. after 6months b. after 18months c. after 24months d. after 36mths
211. Most common type of aneurysm:
a. Saccular b. Furi form c. Myletic d. Dissecting
212. Phantom limb pain occur
in….. percentage of people who have undergon amputation:
a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 30%
213. Which among the following
regarding seminoma is wrong:
a. It arises in the rete tertis b. Age group between 35 & 45yrs c. Metastases
exclusively by lymphatics d. Cross sectionof tumour is homogenous and pink coloured
214. Transitional cell carinoma of
urinary bladder is common in:
a. Watch manufacturer b. Aniline factory worker c. Cement factory worker d. Glass factory
worker
215. Which is not included in
classical trial of symptoms for hypernephroma:
a. Fever b. Pain c.Palapable renal tumour d. Hematuria
216. Second most common type of
hernia is:
a. Inguinal hernia b. Femoral hernia c. Incisional hernia d. Obturator hernia
217. In a case of pelvic fracture
with urethral injury the most important 1st step in management is:
a. Immediate catheterisation of bladder b. Fixationof pelvic fracture c. Repair of injured
urethra d. Treatment of shock
218. In acute mechanical
obstruction treatment is:
a. Gastroduodenal suction b. Replacement of fluids c. Relief of obstruction by operation
d. Relief of obstruction by drugs
219. Most common malignant tumour
arising from Jejunum:
a. Adenocarcinoma b. Lymphosarcoma c. Carcinoid d. Peutz Jegher's syndrome
220. Most precancerous for
carcinoma colon is:
a. Familial polyposis b. Hamartomatous polyps c. Adenomatous polyps d. Hyperplastic plyps
221. Most common type of
congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:
a. Sliding hiatus hernia b. Hernia through foramen of Morgagni c. Posterolateral Bahdalek
hernia d. Traumatic
222. Typhoid perforation occurs
during:
a. 1st week b. 2nd week c. 3rd week d. 4th week
223. Lead paint stools are
characteristic of:
a. Lead poisoning b. Shigellosis c. Carcinoma pancreas d. Carcinoma rectum
224. In Examphalos minor
firmstrapping is done:
a. Never b. for 1week c. for 2 weeks d. for 3 months
225. Commonest type of
intussusception:
a. ileocolic b. ileocaecal c. colocolic d. colorectal
226. For recurrent variceal
bleeding surgery of choice is:
a. Total portocaval shunt b. Side to side portocaval shunt
c. Proximal splenorenal shunt d. Distal splenorenal shunt
227. Post operative
cholangiography is usually done ….. days later:
a. 1-2 days; b. 3-5 days c. 5-7 days d. 10-14 days
228. Commonest cause of death in
peptic ulcer patient is:
a. Perforation b. Hemorrhage c. Pyloric stenosis d. Malignancies
229. Most common site of
spontaneous oesophageal perforation:
a. lower 3rd b. middle 3rd c. upper 3rd d. Near cricothyroid
230. Most common complication of
splenectomy is:
a. Left lower lobe atelectasis b. Acute dilatation of stomach
c. Peritoneal effusion d. Haematemesis
231. Fibrocystic disease is
characterised by following except:
a. Precancerous b. Bilateral
c. Treatment is complete excision d. Incidence increase after menopause
232. Which of following thyroid
tumour has most benign course:
a. Medullary carcinoma b. Papillary carcinoma
c. Undifferentiated carcinoma d. Embryonal carcinoma
233. Nerve's involved in Trotter's
triad are all except:
a. 5th cranial nerve b. 7th cranial nerve c. 8th cranial nerve d. 10th cranial nerve
234. Perilymph is poorest in:
a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium c. Protein
235. In congenital syphillis which
is true regarding fistula sign?
a. Positive fistula sign b. Negative fistula sign c. False positive fistula sign d. False
negative fistula sign
236. Which is false regarding
otosclerosis:
a. More common in females b. Conductive deafness
c. Common in whites d. Autosomal recessive
237. Which among the following
produces adherent membrane in nose:
a. Pneumococcal infection b. Streptococcal infection
c. Staphylococcal infection d. Candida infection
238. All except, are true
regarding intra choanl polyps
a. It occurs in children b. Usually biateral
c. Seen on posterior rhinoscopy d. Usually single
239. All except are true regarding
tuberculosis of larynx:
a. Posterior commissure is the most common site involved
b. Odynophagia more with solids c.Laryngeal lupus runs a painful course
c. Adduction weakness of vocal cords is considered as an early sign of tuberculosis.
240. Most common nerve injured
fiction type of supra condylar fracture :
a. Median b. Ulnar c. Radial d. All three are equally involved.
241. Which fracture was called
"fracture of necessity" by campbell :
a. Monteggia fracture - dislocation b. Galeazzi fracture - dislocation
c. Colle's fracture in post menopausal women d. Supracondylar fracture in children.
242. Treatment of aneurysmal bone
cyst is :
a. Irradiation is useful b. Curettage and bone grafting
c. Small lesions requires no treatment d. All are true.
243. In triple dislocation of knee
all are true except :
a. Tibia subluxated posteriorly b. Rotated externally
c. Displaced medially d. Displaced laterally.
244. Sclerotic bone lesions can
occur in all except :
a. Chondroblastoma b. Multiple myeloma c. Bone metastasis from breast d. Lymphoma.
245. Earliest evidence of VIC in a
supracondylar fracture :
a. Stretch pain b. Absence of redil pulse c. Absence of capillary filling in digits d.
Edema.
246. McMurray's osteotomy is done
in :
a. Osteoarthritis knee b. Non-union neck of femur
c. Posterior dislocation hip d. Triple dislocation knee.
247. Pes cavus is caused by all
except :
a. Plantar fibromatosis b. Polio myelitis
c. Charcot marie tooth disease d. Shortening of tendoachilles.
248. The normal pH of the adult
vagina is about :
a. 3-4 b. 4-5 c. 5-6 d. 6-7
249. The recommended daily intake
of protein in pregnancy is :
a. 50 gm b. 65gm c. 85gm d. 100gm
250. Blood loss in the third stage
of labor does not exceed :
a. 100 ml b. 300 ml c. 500 ml d. 700 ml.
251. Pre-eclampsia becomes
eclampsia with the onset of :
a. Sudden rise in blood pressure b. Elevated B.U.N
c. Retinal haemorrhages d. Convulsions.
252. The most frequent site of
ecotopic gestation is :
a. Tube b. Cornu c. Ovary d. Omentum
253. The most frequent of all
ovarian tumours is the :
a. Cystadenoma b. Dermoid
c. Brenner tumour d. Fibroma
254. The primary site of pelvic
tuberculosis in women is :
a. Cervix b. Tubes c. Uterus d. Ovary.
255. The commonest degenerative
change in a myoma of the uterus is :
a. Red degeneration b. Faty degeneration.c. Cystic degeneration d. Hyaline degeneration.
256. In the majority of cases the
first symptom of cervical cancer is :
a. Dysuria b. Leukorrhea
c. Vaginal bleeding d. Pelvic pain.
257. Neonatal death include all
deaths of infants under the age of :
a. 24 hours b. 72 hours
c. 7 days d. 28 days
258. The highest incidence of
multiple births is found among :
a. Negroes b. Caucasians c. Mongols d. Indians.
259. The incidence of hydramnios
is not increased in excess :
a. Twin pregnancy b. Diabetes c. Face presentation d. Anencephally.
260. In a vertex presentation the
commonest position at the time of engagement is :
a. L.O.A b. R.O.P. c. R.O.A. d. L.O.T.
261. Foetal requirement of iron is
:
a. 200 mg b. 300 mg c. 400 mg d. 500 mg.
262. The treatment of hyperemesis
gravidarum consists :
a. Rest sedation b. I.V. salt solution c. Both d. Neither.
263. The two symptoms most
commonly found in adenolyosis are :
a. Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea b. Metrorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea
c. Dysmenorrhoea and polymenorrhoea d. Dysmenorrhoea and epi-menorrhagia.
264. The most constant and usually
the only symptom of cervicitis is :
a. Leucorrhoea b. Dysmenorrhoea c. Post coital bleeding d. Tenesmus.
265. All of the following are
venereal diseases, except :
a. Yaws b. Gonorrhoea
c. Lipschutz ulcer d. Chancroid.
266. In a cystic teratoma of the
ovary when a malignant change occurs, the lesion is most likely to be :
a. Sarcoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma d. Carcino-sarcoma.
267. Treatment by radiotherapy is
most frequently indicated in carcinoma of :
a. Ovary b. Lung c. Cervix d. Thyroid.
268. The most common tumor of the
major salivary glands is :
a. Benign mixed tumour b. Malignant mixed tumour
c. Warthin's tumour d. Cylindrioma.
269. Cobalt 60 is a :
a. Radioactive isotope b. Deep X-ray therapy machine
c. Diagnostic machine d. Beta ray source.
270. Half life of radio-active
cobalt 60 is :
a. 1600 years b. 30.5 years
c. 5.6 years d. 3 years.
271. Craniospinal irradiation is
indicated in :
a. Acute lymphatic leukaemia after remission b. Hodgkins disease stage IV.
c. Cancer breast stage IV d. Seminoma testis stage IV.
272. Ewing's tumor is :
a. Radioresistant b. Radiosensitive
c. Radiosensitive but recurrent d. Surgery is the treatment of choice.
273. In thyrotoxicosis of thyroid
scanning the isotope used :
a. I 131 b. I132 c. Tele cobalt d. Tc.
274. CT Scan will reveal all,
except :
a. Cerebral tumours b. Cerebral haemorrhages
c. Cerebral atrophy d. Grey & White matter differentiation.
275. Cerebral angiography is
useful in demonstrating:
a. Lesions of cerebral blood vessels and intracranial tumours
b. Scars and atrophic lesions of the brain.
c. Chronic meningitis d. Epilepsy.
276. Radiotherapy is curable in :
a. Ewing's tumor b. Osteosarcoma
c. Rahabdomyosarcoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma of mouth.
277. Gamma radiation is protected
by :
a. Lead b. Gold c. Copper d. Aluminium.
278. Subphrenic abscess is
diagnosed by :
a. Plain X-ray b. Fluroscopy
c. Upper gastrointestinal series d. None of the above.
279. Hertz is a unit of :
a. Loudness b. Intensity c. Power d. Frequency.
280. In ultrasound machines, the
piezo electric crystal is made of:
a. Silicon b. Tungsten c. Lead stannous zirconate d. Molybdenum.
281. Paramagnetic contrast dye
used in NMR imaging is :
a. Technetium b. Gadolinium c. Conray d. Gallium.
282. Which radio isotope is
capable of displacing calcium from the body :
a. Radium b. Strontium c. Plutonium d. Iridium.
283. CT scan was discovered by :
a. HelmHoltz b. Hounsefield c. Honarda d. Bozzini.
284. Pantrier micro abscess is
seen in:
a. Psoriasis b. PLEVA c. Mycosis fungoides d. Pemphigus
285. Positive Koebner phenomenon
can occur in all except:
a. Psoriasis b. Lichen planus c. Warts d. Molluscum fibrosum
286. Drug of choice in pustular
psoriasis:
a. Retinoids b. Methotrexate c. Systemic steroids d. Cyclosporin
287. Intraepidermal split is seen
in:
a. Bullous pemphigoid b. Dermatitis lupetiformis
c. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita d. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
288. All are true about HD(TT)
except:
a. Well defined plaques b. Presence of clear sub-epidermal zone
c. Infiltrative of nerve d. Well defined granuloma
289. Trichomycosis axillaris is
caused by:
a. Trichophyton rubrum b. Corynebacterium minitismum
c. Micrococceus sedentarius d. Corynebacterium tenuis
290. Co-receptor for
macrophage-…….. HIV is:
a. CCR5 b. CXCR4 c. CD4 d. Galactosyl ceramide molecule
291. Drug used in both treatment
of leprosy and lepra reaction is:
a. Rifampicin b. Thalidomide c. Prednisolone d. Clofazimine
292. Disease associated with H
HSV-8:
a. Kaposis sarcoma b. Adult T-cell lymphoma
c. Mycosis fungoides d. Lymphamatoid papulosis
293. The I test to become +ve in
syphilis is:
a. TPHA b. TPI c. FTA ABS d. VDRL
294. Tracheal
tug is associated with:
a. Carbon dioxide narcosis b. Deep anaesthesia c. Biphasic block d. Vasomotor paralysis
295. Post anaesthetic shivering
may increase metabolic rate by a factor of:
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
296. Gastric emptying time is
significantly increased by standard dose of:
a. Methadone b. Scopolamine c. Morphine d. Barbiturates
297. Which of the following
anaesthetic agents has been supersceded because of cardiotoxicity:
a. Cyclopropane b. Halothane c. Chloroform d. Diethyl ether.
298. The most common complication
in spinal anaesthesia is:
a. Post spinal headache b. Hypotension c. Meningitis d. Arrhythmia
299. The gases which are important
in respiratory mechanism:
a. O2 b. CO2 c. NO2 d. CO
300. Which of the following local
anaesthetic is more safe in surface and infiltrating anaesthesia?
a. Procaine b. Cocaine c. Lidocaine d. Amethocaine
**Answers
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