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Calicut Medical College Alumni Association

Model Entrance Examination 1999

Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Exam 1999

Page 1

**Go to Page 2 **Go to Page 3 **Answers

1. A tumour arising in a burn scar is most likely to be:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Malignant melanoma d. Sweat gland adenocarcinoma

2. Chronic constrictive pericarditis usually results from:
a. Rheumatic fever b. Myocardial infarction c. Tuberculosis
d. Emphysema

3. Periglomerular fibrosis is considered typical of:
a. Chronic pyelonephritis b. Chronic glomerulonephritis c. Arterio nephrosclerosis d. Malignant hypertension

4. Abscess formation is most common in:
a.Lobar pneumonia b. Streptococcal pneumonia c.Viral pneumonia
d. Staphylococcal pneumonia

5. Haemolytic anemia does not result from:
a. Congenital spheocytosis b. Sickle cell disease c. Thalassemic haemosiderosis d. Erythroblastosis foetalis

6. Bone marrow aspiration is contraindicated by:
a. Hepatic cellular disease b. Corpulmonale c. Acute leukaemia
d. Haemophilia

7. Complications of myocardial infarction include all of the following except:
a. Pulmonary emboli b. Arrhythmias c. Septic emboli to the brain
d. Shock

8. Chromosomal abnormalities are frequently encountered in:
a. Aplastic anemia b. Hereditary spherocytic anemia c. Chronic myelocytic leukaemia d. Pseudohaemophilia

9. All of the following disease are characterised by splenomegaly except:
a. Kala-azar b. Haemolytic anaemia c. Thrombocytopaenic purpura
d. Sickle cell anemia in adults.

10. Changes in the brain leading to mental retardation is an important feature of:
a. Cystinuria b. Phenylketonuria c. Alkaptonuria d. Galactosuria

11. The following conditions are accepted as precancerous except:
a. Polyposis of the colon b. Ulcerative colitis c. Regional ileitis
d. Pigmentary cirrhosis

12. Auto immunity is known to have a role in the causation of:
a. Hashimoto's disease b. Diabetes mellitus c. Addison's disease
d. All of the above

13. The LE cell is positive in all the following conditions except:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Penicillin reaction d. Hashimoto's disease

14. Defective humeral immunity is present in all the following except:
a. Mycosis fungoides b. Heavy chain disease
c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Multiple myeloma

15. All of the following have chromosomal abnormalities except:
a. Turner's syndrome b. Down's syndrome c. Hurler's syndrome
d. Adrenogenital syndrome

16. Bleeding diathesis is a common presenting symptom in:
a. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia b. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
c. Myelomonocytic leukaemia d. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia

17. This is considered to be a premalignant condition in the breast:
a. Pubertal hyperplasia b. Mammary dysplasia c. Plasma cell mastitis
d. Galactocele

18. Alpha antitrypsin deficiency is usually associated with:
a. Pulmonary emphysema b. Fatty liver c. Intestinal malabsorption
d. All of the above

19. Autoimmune thyroid disorders are usually associated with:
a. Hypothyroidism b. Antithyroglobulin antibodies c. Antimicrosomal antibodies d. All of the above.

20. This condition is usually associated with lymphoma:
a. Regional enteritis b. Immune deficiency states c. Lymphangiectasia d. Xeroderma pigmentosa

21. All the following are examples of primary disorders of connective tissue except:
a. Marfan's syndrome b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum c. Xanthelasma
d. Scleroderma

22. Fibrinoid necrosis is the hall mark of:
a. Gouty tophi b. Diabetic vasculopathy c. Malignant hypertension
d. Endarteritis obliterans

23. All these lesions are precancerous except:
a. Polyposis colon b. Leukoplakia of buccal mucosa c. Vesical papilloma d. Fibroadenoma

24. Which is not a precancerous lesion
a. Leucoplakia b. Vesical papilloma c. Chronic cervicitis
d. Osteitis imperfecta

25. Burkitt's lymphoma is due to:
a. Industrial dust b. Bacteria c. Herpes group of virus d. Ricketsiae

26. Active immunity can not be acquired by:
a. Exposure to infectious disease b. Inoculation with living organisms
c. Inoculation with organisms killed by heat d. Inoculation with immune serum

27. Which of the following has the highest Vit A content?
a. Dark green leafy vegetables b. Banana c. Ragi d. Egg

28. The most prevalent mosquito-born viral disease in India
a. Dengue fever b. Japanese B encephalitis c. Yellow fever
d. Kyasunur forest disease

29. Health surveillance is:
a. Collection of data b. Interpretation of data c. Monitoring programmes d. Collection and interpreation of data

30. Exo-eryothrocytic phase is absent in:
a. P.vivax infection b. P.malaria infection c. P.falciparum infection
d. P.ovale infection

31. One of the following arthropods causes scabies
a. Xenopsylla b. Pediculus c. Phelbotomus d. Sarcoptes

32. The following are internationally quarantinable diseases except
a. Malaria b. Yellow fever c. Plague d. Cholera

33. Which one of the following has shortest incubation period:
a. Diphtheria b. German measles c. Small-pox d. Chicken pox

34. Salk vaccine is a:
a. Killed vaccine b. Live vaccine c. Live attenuated vaccine d. Toxoid

35. Which antituberculous acts on rapidly multiplying bacilli?
a. Rifampicin b. Streptomycin c. Ethambutol d. INH

36. The vitamin C is present in large amounts in:
a. Lemon b. Tomato c. Orange d. Amla (Indian goose berry)

37. DDT acts as a:
a. Stomach poison b. Repellent c. Contact poison d. Affects fertility

38. 'Spread' of the dispersion (of numericals)
a. Mean b. Mode c. Median d. Standard deviation

39. The vaccine need NOT be given to boys is:
a. Measles b. German measles c. Mumps d. Small pox

40. The main source of collection of medical statistics is:
a. Experiments b. Surveys c. Records d. All of the above.

41. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per:
a. 100 live births in 1year b. 1000 live births in 1 year c. Total live births in 1 year d. 1000 live births in 10 years

42. A pictorial diagram of frequency distribution is denoted by;
a. Pictogram b. Histogram c. Pie charts d. Bar charts

43. The best index of MCH services in a community is:
a. Maternal mortality rate b. Infant mortality rate c. Perinatal mortality rate d. Neonatal mortality rate

44. Old contamination of water is suggested by the presence of:
a. Nitrates b. Nitrites c. Free ammonia d. None of the above

45. One of the following is 'biologically complete'
a. Groundnut b. Wheat c. Soyabin d. Milk

46. Pellagra is widely prevalent in:
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Bihar c. Kashmir d. Bengal

47. The tertiary prevention consists of:
a. Health promotion b. Health protection c. Early diagnosis and treatment d. Rehabilitation

48. One of the following arthropods causes scabies:
a. Xenopsylla b. Pediculus c. Phlebotomus d. Sarcoptes

49. Hospital refuse is best treated with:
a. Sanitary land-fill b. Compositing c. Incineration d. Dumping

50. The toxic agent in epidemic dropsy includes:
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids c. Sanguinarine d. None of the above.

51. The organism most commonly causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is:
a. Staphylococcus b. Pneumococcus c. Betahaemolytic streptococcus d. Alpha haemolytic streptococcus

52. Mumps virus may cause inflammation of the:
a. Pancreas b. Ovaries c. Sublingual glands d. All of these

53. Food poisoning caused by staphylococcus aureus due to production of:
a. Haemolysin b. Lethal toxins c. Enterotoxins d. Exotoxins

54. For effective sterilisation in an autoclave the temperature obtained is:
a. Ultraviolet radiation b. Either c. Phenol d. Sulphadiazine

55. Frei's test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Gonorrhoea b. Syphilis c. Herpes d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

56. Kyasanur forest disease virus is transmitted by;
a. Ingestion b. Innoculation c. Arthropod d. Inhalation

57. Tyndallisation is a method of:
a. Intermittent sterilisation b. Autoclaving c. Boiling d. Pasteurisation

58. Complement is:
a. An antigen b. An antibody c. Natural substance in serum d. A reagin

59. Kala-azar (Leishmania donavani) is transmitted by vector
a. Musca domestica b. Glossina palpalis c. Phelbotomas argintepes d. Ornithodones mobata

60. Histoplasma capsulatum is a:
a. Yeast fungi b. Dermatophyte c. Mycelial fungi d. Dimorphic fungi

61. Spherical terminal endospores are present in:
a. Clostridium welchi b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Clostridium sporogenes

62. Cell mediated immunity is by;
a. T-lymphocytes b. B-lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils

63. Undulant fever (Malta fever) is caused by:
a. Brucella species b. Loefflerella species c. Pasteurella species d. Bartonella species

64. Sterilization by steam under pressure is done by:
a. Tyndall's chamber b. Koch's arnold steamer c. Auto clave d. Hot air oven

65. Pleurodynia (Bornholm's disease) is caused by:
a. Coxsackie virus b. Fungus c. Bacteria d. None

66. Weil-Felix reaction is useful in diagnosis of:
a. Trypanosomiasis b. Rickettsial infection c. Bacterial infection d. Viral infection

67. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as:
a. Friedlander's bacillus b. Kleb's-Loeffler's bacillus c. Frich's bacillus d. Koch's bacillus

68. Naegler's reaction is useful to detect:
a. Lecithinase b. Hyaluronidase c. Coagulase d. Collagenase

69. Enterococci belongs to:
a. Group A b. Group B c. Group C & D d. Group D

70. Bacteroides features include all, except:
a. Endogenous b. Space forming c. Forms foul smelling gas d. Anaerobic

71. Which of the following agents is least likely to release endogenous histamine
a. Penicillin; b. Morphin c. Vasopressin d. Propanidid

72. Clinical applications of ACTH include:
a. Treatment of Addison's disease b. Diagnostic agent c. Treatment of ketosis d. Reduction of adrenal ascorbic acid

73. Atropine:
a. Was isolated in the year 1831 b. Is an alkaloid found in Solanaceous plants c. Is an alkaloid found in Datura stramonium d. Is very poorly absorbed from oral administration

74. Penicillin has little or no bacterial action against
a. Meningococcal b. Resting cell c. Actively growing cells d. Treponema pallidum

75. Extra pyramidal symptoms are commonly met with:
a. Metoclopramide b. Phenothiazenes c. Reserpine d. All of the above.

76. Treatment of insomnia due to anxiety is with:
a. Morphine b. Imipramine c. Meprobamate d. Ethyl ether

77. The drug used to correct low prothrombin level in the blood is:
a. Menadione sodium bisulfite b. Calcium gluconate c. Acetyl salycilic acid d. Warfarin sodium

78. A sulfonamide that is rapidly absorbed and excreted
a. Succinyl sulfathrazole b. Phthalyl sulphathiazole c. Sulphadiazine
d. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

79. Paracetamol is:
a. Acetophenetidin b. Phenacetin c. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol
d. Acetyl salcylic acid

80. Emetine hydrochloride is used in:
a. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis b. Bacillary dysentery c. Round worm infestation d. Extra-intestinal amoebiasis

81. Streptomycin was discovered by:
a. Sir Alexander Fleming b. Sir William Dunn c. S.A.Waksman
d. Louis Pasteur

82. Cimetidine may be useful for treating
a. Duodenal ulcer b. Reflux oesophagitis c. Gastric ulcer
d. All of the above

83. The preferred route of administration for ferrous sulfate is:
a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous

84. Sulphones are recommended in the treatment of:
a. Dysentery b. Leprosy c. Tuberculosis d. L.G.V

85. The radical treatment of malaria is:
a. To kill exoerythrocytic phase b. To kill gametocytes c. To kill erythrocytic phase d. None

86. Frusemide is:
a. Sulphonyl urea derivative b. Mercurial derivative c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor d. Specific aldosterone antagonist

87. Which group of chemical structure is NOT used in epilepsy;
a. Acetyl ureas b. Barbiturates c. Hydantoins d. Tropines

88. Opisthotonus is seen in:
a. Phenothiazene over dosage b. Parkinsonism c. Potts disease d. Spinal poliomyelitis

89. The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Histamine d. Corticosteroid

90. One of the following drug is not hepatotoxic:
a. Rifampicin b. Chloroquine c. Tetracycline d. Carbontetrachloride

91. The most reliable evidence for respiration in new born child is derived from:
(for forensic work) a. Hydrostatic test b. Breslau's test c. Microscopic test d. Fodere's test (static test)

92. One of the following is the best test for seminal stains:
a. Florence test b. Alkaline phosphatase test c. Acid phosphatase test d. Precipitin test

93. Coma and pin-point pupils are seen in poisoning due to:
a. Alcohol b. Carbolic acid c. Opium d. Parathion

94. Lucid interval is seen in:
a. Insanity b. Syphilis c. Viral infection d. Malignant disease

95. Cadaveric spasm affects the following muscles:
a. Voluntary b. Involuntary c. Both d. None

96. Extra-dural haemorrhage is usually caused by a rupture of:
a. Middle meningeal artery b. Middle cerebral artery c. Anterior cerebral artery d. Posterior cerebral artery

97. Overlaying is a type of:
a. Smothering b. Hanging c. Strangulation d. Homicidal hanging

98. An 'AB' group parent cannot beget a child belonging to:
a. 'O' group b. 'A' group c. 'B' group d. 'AB' group

99. Pre-auricular sulcus is useful for:
a. Determination of age b. Identification of sex c. Determination of race d. Cause of death

100.Section 302 of Indian Penal Code is for:
a. Rape b. Murder c. Grievous hurt d. Attempt to commit suicide

**Answers

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